Continuity and DifferentiabilityHard
Question
Let g is the inverse function of f and f′(x) = 
. If g(2) = a, then g′(2) is equal to
. If g(2) = a, then g′(2) is equal toOptions
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
f¢(x) = 
, g(2) = a & g′(2) = ?
g is inverse of f
f(g(x)) = x
Differentiating w.r.t. x
f′(g(x)) . g′(x) = 1
g′(x) =
g′(2) =
g′(2) =
, g(2) = a & g′(2) = ?g is inverse of f
f(g(x)) = x
Differentiating w.r.t. x
f′(g(x)) . g′(x) = 1
g′(x) =
g′(2) =
g′(2) =
Create a free account to view solution
View Solution FreeMore Continuity and Differentiability Questions
Let g(x) = ; 0 0, and let p be the left hand derivative of |x - 1| at x = 1. If g(x) = p, then...If f(x) = is continuous at x = 0, then the value of a is -...Which of the following could be the sketch graph of y = (x lnx) ?...If y = , then is -...If = ax + b, then the value of ′a′ and ′b′ are respectively...