Continuity and DifferentiabilityHard

Question

If f(x) = cos-1 , then f′(e) is equal to-

Options

A.does not exist
B.2/e
C.1/e
D.1

Solution

f(x) = cos-1
f(x) = 2 tan-1 (log x)
f′(x) = 2.
∴ f′(e) =

Create a free account to view solution

View Solution Free
Topic: Continuity and Differentiability·Practice all Continuity and Differentiability questions

More Continuity and Differentiability Questions