ProbabilityHard
Question
The mean and variance of a random variable having a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then P (X = 1) is
Options
A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution
np = 4
npq = 2
q =
, p =
n = 8
p (x = 1) = 8C1
=
Hence, (A) is the correct answer.
npq = 2
q =
, p =
n = 8
p (x = 1) = 8C1

=
Hence, (A) is the correct answer.
Create a free account to view solution
View Solution FreeMore Probability Questions
There are machines and it is known that exactly two of them are faulty. They are tested, by one , in a random order till...A letter is taken out at random from ′ASSISTANT′ and another is taken out from ′STATISTICS′. The...One hundred Identical coins each with probability P of showing up heads are tossed once. It 0 < P < 1 and probabil...A & B having equal skill, are playing a game of best of 5 points. After A has won two points & B has won one point, the ...Let 0 < P(A) < 1, 0 < P(B) < 1 & P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A). P(B), then:...