ProbabilityHard
Question
The mean and variance of a random variable having a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then P (X = 1) is
Options
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
np = 4
npq = 2
q =
, p =
n = 8
p (x = 1) = 8C1
=
Hence, (A) is the correct answer.
npq = 2
q =
, p = n = 8
p (x = 1) = 8C1
=
Hence, (A) is the correct answer.
Create a free account to view solution
View Solution FreeMore Probability Questions
A number is chosen at random from the numbers 10 to 99. A number whose product of digits is 12 will be called a good num...Three of the six veritices of a regular hexagon are chosen at random. The probability that triangle with three vertices ...The odds in favour of winning a race by three boys are 1:3, 1:5 and 1:4 respectively. The probability of winning the rac...Shalu brought two cages of birds : Cage-I contains 5 parrots and 1 owl and Cage-II contains 6 parrots, as shown. One day...A bag contains 3 white and 3 black balls. Balls are drawn one by one with out replacing them in the bag. The probability...