DifferentiationHard
Question
If f(x) = cos 
, - 1 < x < 2 and [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x, then f′ 
is equal to
, - 1 < x < 2 and [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x, then f′ is equal toOptions
A.0
B.1
C.1/2
D.1/√2
Solution
∵ 1 < 
< 2
∴ If x =
⇒ [x] = 1
so, f(x) = sin x3 ⇒ f′(x) = 3x2 cos x3
∴ f′
< 2∴ If x =
⇒ [x] = 1so, f(x) = sin x3 ⇒ f′(x) = 3x2 cos x3
∴ f′
Create a free account to view solution
View Solution FreeMore Differentiation Questions
If ƒ(x) = ex g(x), g(0) = 2, g′(0) = 1, then ƒ′(0) is-...If log (y − 1) = log x + y, then dy/dx is equal to-...If y = ex(cos x + sin x), then the value of y2 is -...If x = a (cos θ + qsin θ), y = a (sin θ − θ cos θ) then at θ = π equals to -...If f(x - y), f(x).f(y) and f(x + y) are in A.P. ∀ x, y ∈ R and f(0) ≠ 0, if f(x) has continuous deriva...