Magnetic field due to currentHard
Question
An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to from a right angle as shown in figure. A current I flows through PQR. The magnetic field due to this current at the point M is H1. Now, another infinitely long straight conductor QS is connected at Q, so that the current is I/2 in QR, the current in PQ remaining unchanged. The magnetic field at M is now H2. The ratio H1 / H2 is given by
Options
A.1/2
B.1
C.2/3
D.2
Solution
H1 = Magnetic field at M due to PQ + Magnetic field at M due to QR
But magnetic field at M due to QR = O
∴ Magnetic field at M due to PQ (or due to current I in PQ) = H1
Now, H2 = Magnetic field at M due to PQ (current I)
+ Magnetic field at M due to QS (current I / 2)
+ Magnetic field at M due to QR
But magnetic field at M due to QR = O
∴ Magnetic field at M due to PQ (or due to current I in PQ) = H1
Now, H2 = Magnetic field at M due to PQ (current I)
+ Magnetic field at M due to QS (current I / 2)
+ Magnetic field at M due to QR
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